Free PCCET Sample Questions — Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician

A native hypervisor runs:

• A. with extreme demands on network throughput
• B. only on certain platforms
• C. within an operating system's environment
• D. directly on the host computer's hardware

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

• A. UDP
• B. MAC
• C. SNMP
• D. NFS

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

• A. Evil twin
• B. Jasager
• C. Parager
• D. Mirai

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

• A. algorithms
• B. Cloud Access Security Broker
• C. Security Incident and Event Management
• D. playbooks

Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

• A. Prisma SAAS
• B. WildFire
• C. Cortex XDR
• D. Cortex XSOAR

What is the key to `taking down` a botnet?

• A. prevent bots from communicating with the C2
• B. install openvas software on endpoints
• C. use LDAP as a directory service
• D. block Docker engine software on endpoints

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

• A. exploitation
• B. actions on the objective
• C. command and control
• D. installation

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

• A. Initial Research
• B. Change Control
• C. Content Engineering
• D. Breach Response

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

• A. Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store
• B. Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”
• C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things
• D. Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”

What is one of the elements of SecOps?

• A. Zero Trust model
• B. Interfaces
• C. Infrastructure
• D. Finances

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

• A. Multi-tenancy
• B. Dedicated Networks
• C. Dedicated Hosts
• D. Multiplexing

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

• A. User-ID
• B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
• C. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
• D. Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

• A. Case management
• B. Integrations
• C. Ticketing system
• D. Playbooks

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

• A. Patch systems and software effectively and continuously
• B. Create preventative memory-corruption techniques
• C. Perform an attack on local systems
• D. Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

• A. endpoint-based firewall
• B. strong user passwords
• C. full-disk encryption
• D. software patches

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

• A. 4G/LTE
• B. VLF
• C. L-band
• D. 2G/2.5G

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

• A. Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand
• B. Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components
• C. Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code
• D. Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code

What are two benefits of SaaS applications? (Choose two.)

• A. They are infinitely scalable
• B. User training is less critical
• C. They are fast to deploy
• D. Vendors have a responsibility to protect the applications

What are the three main reasons for the introduced risks associated with IoT devices? (Choose three.)

• A. IoT devices are unencrypted and unsecured
• B. IoT devices are assumed to be visible to IT teams
• C. IoT cyberattacks are targeting legacy protocols
• D. IoT devices only rely on a wired connection
• E. Internet of Medical Things (IoMT) devices are running outdated software

Which option describes the `selective network security virtualization` phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

• A. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled
• B. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server
• C. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol
• D. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced